Sample Questions Papers
1. Two bodies with masses m1 and m2
are moving with equal K.E. Their linear moments
are numerically in the ratio
a)
b)
c)
d)
2. A sound wave of frequency 500 Hz covers a distance
of 1000 meters in 5 seconds. What is the wavelength
a) 2 m
b) 1 m
c) 0.4 m
d) 0.02m
3. A circle and a square are equal in area, whose perimeter is larger
a) Circumference (perimeter of circle) > Perimeter of square
b) Circumference (perimeter of circle)
< Perimeter of square
c) Circumference of circle =
Perimeter of square
d) None of the above
4. log3 log4x > 0
then
a) x > 1 b)
x > 4
c) x > 64
d) None of these
5. Which of the following has maximum ionisation potential
a) Mg
b) Si
c) Al
d)
P
6. A new electron
enters into the orbital for which
a) (n + l) is
minimum
b) (n + l) is maximum
c) (n + m) is minimum d) (n + m) is maximum
7. Which of the following is a non-volatile memory
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) LSI
d) VLSI
8. The assembler is a
a) Machine language program
b) Assembly language program
c) High level language program
d) None of these
9. Which one of the following rocks can undergo folding
i) Sedimentary
ii) Metamorphic
iii) igneous
a) i only
b) i and
ii
c) i and iii
d) i, ii and iii
10. According to the currently accepted theory for the origin of the solar system:
a) A huge nebula collapsed under it own gravitational attraction
b) The nebula formed a disc with the Sun in the centre
c) Planetesmials accreted from gaseous, liquid and solid particles.
d) All the above
1. Which amino acid is involved in purine biosynthesis
a) Glycine
b) aspartate c) glutamine
d) all the above
2. Carbonic acid (H2CO3)
ionizes partially in water to form bicarbonate (HCO3-
) and H+.
What will happen to a solution containing these ions when a small amount
of a strong base is added
a) More of the (H2CO3)
will ionize to form (HCO3-
)
b) More of the (HCO3-
) will combine with H+
to form (H2CO3)
c) Nothing will change
d) all the above
3. Which of the following leads to the decrease in the fluidity in the lipid bilayer
a. An increase in the unsaturation of the phospholipid fatty acyl chains
b. Decrease in the amount of cholesterol
in bilayer
c. Increase in the temperature of the bilayer
d. An increase in the length of fatty acid chain
4. Na+K+ ATPase and SERCA pumps are inhibited by
a) Tetrodotoxin
b) Dendrotoxin c) Vandate
d) Bungarotuxin
5. TH cell
is distinguished from Tc cell
by the presence of which type of glycoprotein on their surface?
a) Presence of CD4
b) Absence of CD4
c) Presence of MHC-I on the TH cell
d) None of these
6.
The first Antibody synthesized by the Neonate?
a) lg G
b) lg A
c) lg M
d)
Ig E
7. In DNA structure ‘propeller trait’ means
a) two bases orient antiparallel to each other
b) two bases
flip with respect to each other
c) the bases of DNA base pairs twist with respect to each other
d) two bases stock with respect to each other with 3.4
Aº
8. Rifampicin resistant mutarts of E. coli
were obtained in an experiment. Which of the following is the most likely to have
undergone a mutation
a) amino-acyl t-RNA synthetase
b) Sigma factor of RNA polymerase
c) Beta subunit of RNA polymerase
d) Alpha subunit
of RNA polymerase
9. The egg of
frog is
a) Telolecithal
b) Microlecithal
c) Centrolecithal
d) Alecithal
10. The nature of endosperm in coconut is
a. Cellular
b. Helobial
c. Nucellar
d. All of these
11. Oxygen is reduced to water in which stage of respiration?
a) Glycolysis
b) Kreb’s cycle c) ETC
d) All of the above
12. Nitrogen fixation means, conversion of
a) Nitrates to ammonia
b) Nitrogen to ammonia
c) Ammonia to nitrates
d) Proteins to ammonia
13. The
hypothalamus is a major coordinating and control center because:
a.
it stimulates appropriate responses by peripheral target
cells
b.
it stimulates responses to restore homeostasis
c.
it initiates endocrine and neural reflexes
d.
it contains autonomic centers and acts as an endocrine
organ
14. The
amino acid derivative hormone epinephrine is responsible for:
a) release
of lipids by adipose tissue b) glycogen
breakdown
c) increased cardiac
activityd) all of the above
15. In a cross AaBbCcDd x AaBbCcDd, what is the probability
of producing the genotype AABbccDd
a) 1/8
b) 1/16
c) 1/32
d) 1/64
16. Inheritance of ABO blood group shows
a) Polyploidy
b) polygyny
c) multiple allelism
d) incomplete dominance
17. Species of a genus have common
a) Karyotype
b) Ancestry
c) Genetic material
d) Anatomy
18. Which among the following is NOT true about Simpson's
index (D)
a) It is directly proportional to dominance
b) It is inversely proportional
to diversity
c) It is directly proportional to diversity
d) None of the above
19. Phytoplanktons occur abundantly in which zone
a) Littoral
b) Profundal
c) Limnetic
d) Benthic
20. Oligotrophic soils have
(i) High Nutrient retention capacity
(ii) high leaching rate
(iii) Poor nutrient retention capacity
(iv) Low
leaching rate
Choose the correct option among the following:
a) i and ii
b) ii
and iii
c) i and iv
d) iii and
iv
21. Sympatric population shows
a) Population whose geographic ranges overlap
b) Population showing similar adaptations
c) Population showing similar adaptations
d) Population at verge of extinction
22. A particular gene has only two alleles, W and w. The proportion of the W allele
in a particular population is 0.2. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,
what is the frequency of the ww genotype
a) 0.04
b) 0.8
c) 0.64
d) 0.32
23. The mimicry in which mimic is defenseless but has Antipredatory marks like the
model which has
defense against predators known as:
a) Batesian Mimicry
b) Mullerian Mimicry
c) Both
a & b
d) None of the above
24. Yeast Artificial chromosome (YAC) is used for
a) cloning large segments of DNA
b) cloning
only yeast genomic sequences
c) cloning of only cDNA sequences
d) all DNA except
plant DNA sequences
25. Recombinant live attenuated vaccine against hepatitis B was prepared from
a) Plasma of chronically infected individual
b) Recombinant yeast expressing hepatitis B surface antigen
c) Recombinant vaccinia virus expressing hepatitis B surface antigen
d) Transgenic plants expressing Hepatitis
B surface antigen
26. Dithiothreitol and
merceptoethanol is used because
a) Both reduces disulfide linkages
b) One reduces and the other oxidizes disulfide linkages
c) Both oxidizes disulfide linkages
d) None of the above
27. Tm of primer is calculated by using
formula Tm=
a) 4 (G+C) & 2 (A+T)
b) 2(G+C) & 4(A+T)
c) 2(G+C) + 2(A+T)
d) None of the above
28. TEM is used to study
a) Internal structure
b) Surface molecules
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
01. The erythrocyte membrane cytoskeleton consists of a meshwork of proteins underlying the membrane. The principal component spectrin has α, β subunits which assemble to form tetramers. The cytoskeleton is anchored to the membrane through linkages with the transmembrane proteins band 3 and glycophorin C. The cytosolic domain of band 3 also serves as the binding site of glycolytic enzymes such as glyceraldehyde 3- phosphate dehydrogenase. Analysis of the blood sample of a patient with haemolytic anemia shows spherical red blood cells. The patient carries
1)a mutation in glycophorin C.
2)a mutant spectrin with increased tetramerization propensity.
3)mutant β spectrin defective in αβ dimerization ability.
4)mutant glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase.
02. Synthesis of normal hemoglobin requires coordinated synthesis of α globin and β globin. Thalassemias are genetic defects perturbed in this coordinated synthesis. Patients suffering from deficiency of β globin chains (β-thalassemia) could also be due to mutations affecting the biosynthesis of β globin mRNA.
The following statements describe the genesis of non-functional β globin leading to β- thalassemia.
A.Mutation in the promoter region of the β globin gene.
B.Mutation in the splice junction of the β globin gene.
C.Mutation in the intron I of the β globin gene.
D.Mutations towards the 3' end of the β globin gene that codes for polyadenylation site.
Which of the following combinations is correct ?
1) A,B and D 2)A, B and C
3)B,C and D 4)C, D and A
03. Equilibrium constant (K) of noncovalent interaction between two non-bonded atoms of two different groups was measured at 27oC. It was observed that K = 100M-1. The strength of this noncovalent interaction in terms of Gibbs free energy change is :
1)2746 kcal/mole. 2)-2746 kcal/mole.
3) 247 kcal/mole. 4) -247 kcal/mole.
04. Bacteriophage λ has two modes in its life cycle, lytic and lysogenic. In the lysogenic mode, the expression of all the phage genes are repressed while the expression of repressor gene switches between on and off position depending on the concentration of repressor. The following statements are made :
A. Repressor may act both as a positive regulator and a negative regulator
B. Expression of repressor gene, cI is independent of the expression of cII and cIII genes.
C. Mutation of cI gene will cause it to form clear plaques on both wild type E.coli and E. coli (λ+).
D. Mutation at operators, OL and OR will allow the phage to act as a virulent phage.
The correct statements are
1)A and B 2)B and C
3)C and D 4)D and A
04. Following are some statements regarding plant growth hormones.
A.Ethylene regulates abscission.
B.Gibberlins do not play any role in flowering.
C.Auxin and cytokinin promote cell division.
D.Over expression of cytokinin oxidase would promote root growth.
E.ABA inhibits roots growth and promotes shoot growth at low water potential.
F.ABA promotes leaf senescence independent of ethylene.
Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct ?
1) A, C and F 2) B,C and D
3) D,E and F 4) B, D and E
05. An isolated carotid sinus was prepared so that the pressure may be regulated by a pump and the resulting discharge in single carotid sinus nerve fibre could be recorded. The following are the possible observations.
A. No discharge when carotid sinus perfusion pressure was below 30 mm Hg.
B.Linear increase in discharge frequency when carotid sinus perfusion pressure was gradually increased from 70 to 110 mm Hg.
C. Increase in discharge frequency was more prominent in greater pulsatile changes of carotid sinus pressure keeping the mean pressure identical in all cases.
D.Increase in discharge was more prominent in the falling phase of pulsatile change of carotid sinus pressure than in the rising phase.
Which one of the following is correct ?
1) A, B and C 2) A and C
3) B and D 4) D only
06. In the following statement taken from a research paper, what does p in the parenthesis stand for ?
"The mean temperature of this region now is significantly higher than the one 50 years ago (p<0.05, t-test)"
1.Ratio of the mean temperatures of the two time periods tested.
2.Probability of the error of rejecting a true null hypothesis.
3.Probability of the error of accepting a false null hypothesis.
4.Probability of the t-test being effective in detecting significant differences in the mean annual temperatures of the two time periods.
07. Assuming a 1 : 1 sex ratio, what is the probability that three children from the same parents will consist of two daughters and one son ?
1)0.375 2) 0.125 3) 0.675 4) 0.75
08. Maturation- promoting factor (MPF) controls the inhibition of mitosis in eukaryotic cells. MPF kinase activity requires cyclin B. Cyclin B is required for chromosome condensation and breakdown of the nuclear envelope into vesicles. Cyclin B degradation is followed by chromosome decondensation, nuclear envelope reformation and exit from mitosis. This requires ubiquitination of a cyclin destruction box motif in cyclin B. RNase-treatd Xenopus egg extracts and sperm chromatin were mixed. MPF activity increased with chromosome condensation and nuclear envelope breakdown. However, this was not followed by chromosome decondensation and nuclear envelope reformation because.
1.RNase contamination persisted in the system.
2.cyclin B was missing from the system.
3.ubiquitin ligase had been overexpressed.
4.cyclin B lacking the cyclin destruction box had been overexpressed.
09. In an in vitro experiment using radiolabelled nucleotides, a researcher is trying to analyze the possible products of DNA replication by resolving the products using urea-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis. In one experimental set up RNase H was added (Set 1), while in another set no RNase H was added (Set 2).
The possible observations of this experiment could be
A. There is no difference in the mobility of labelled DNA fragment between the Set 1 and Set 2.
B.There is distinct difference in the mobility of the newly synthesized labelled DNA fragments between Set 1 and Set 2.
C.The mobility of the newly synthesized labelled DNA fragments in case of Set 1 is faster as compare to the Set 2.
D.The mobility of the newly synthesized labelled DNA fragments in case of Set 1 is slower as compared to the Set 2.
Which of the following combinations represent correct observations ?
1) A and B 2) B and C
3) A and D 4) B and D
10. The bacterial flagellar motor is a multi-protein complex. Rotation of the flagellum requires movement of protons across the membrane facilitated by a multi-protein complex. The flagellar motor proteins combine to create a proton channel that drives mechanical rotation. In a screen for mutants, some non-motile ones were selected. These could have
1)mutations in tubulin and actin proteins.
2)mutations in kinesin proteins.
3)mutated H+ - ATPase.
4)mutations in the charged residues lining the ridge of the FliG subunit.
11. Pre-mRNAs are rapidly bound by snRNPs which carry out dual steps of RNA splicing, that removes the introns and joins the upstream and downstream exons.
The following statements describe some facts related to this event.
A. Almost all introns begin with GU and end with AG sequences an hence all the GU or AG sequences are spliced out of RNA.
B.U2 RNA recognizes important sequences at the 3' acceptor end of the intron.
C. The spliceosome uses ATP to carry out accurate removal of intron.
D. An unusual linkage with 2' OH group of guanosine within the intron from a 'Lariat' structure.
Which of the following combinations is correct ?
1) A and B 2) B and C
3) C and D 4) D and A
12. Assume a male sparrow (species X) is hatched and reared in isolation and allowed a critical imprinting period to hear the song of a male of another sparrow (species Y). Now after the isolation, what kind of behaviour will species X show ?
1.It will sing the song of species Y that it had heard in the critical period.
2.It will sing the song of its own species X.
3.It will not sing at all.
4.It will sing a song not sung by either X or Y.
13. A 1 meter tall object was placed 10 meter in front of a normal eye. The size of the image on the retina will be (consider distance between lens and retina = 1.7 cms)
1)0.17 mm 2) 1.7 mm
3) 3.4 mm 4) 170 μm
14. In human, protein coding genes are mainly organized as "exons" and "introns". There are intergenic regions that transcribe into various types of non-coding RNA (not translating into protein). Some introns may harbor also transcription units, which are
1. always other protein coding genes.
2. protein coding gene and RNA coding genes.
3. always RNA coding genes.
4. pseudo genes.
15. A fixed smear of a bacterial culture is subjected to the following solutions in the order listed below and appeared red.
a) Carbolfuchsin (heated)
b) Acid – alcohol
c) Methylene blue
Bacteria stained by this method can be identified as
1) Non-acid fast E.coli
2) Acid-fast Mycobacterium sp.
3) Gram-positive E. coli
4) Gram-negative Mycobacterium sp.
16. Survival of intracellular pathogens depends on the level of pro-inflammatory and anti-inflammatory cytokines in macrophages. In an experimental condition, Mycobacteria infected macrophages were treated with IL-6 or IL-12 for 4 hours at 37oC. Untreated cells were used as control. Cells were lysed and number of bacteria in each experimental set was counted by measuring colony forming unit (CFU): Which of the following observations is true ?
1)IL-12 treated cells contain more intracellular bacteria than control.
2)IL-12 treated cells contain less intracellular bacteria than control
3)IL-6 treated cells contain more intracellular bacteria than control
4)IL-6 treated cells contain less intracellular bacteria than control
17. The genetic relatedness (r) of an individual to his nephew is 0.25. The alleles that cause uncles to care for nephews will spread, according to Hamilton's Rule, only if the fitness benefit is
1)equal to the cost of care
2) more than the cost of care by 25%
3)double the cost of care
4) four times the cost of care
18. Many cancers carry mutant p53 genes, while some cancers have normal p53 genes. p53 activates p21 (Waf1) which inhibits G1/S-Cdks and phosphorylation of the retinoblastoma protein (Rb). Cancers with normal p53 genes could
1.express non-phosphorylatable form of Rb.
2.express high levels of p53-deubiquitinases.
3.express inactive forms of G1/S-cdks.
4.express inactive forms of G1/S cyclins.
19. For a normal heart, the time taken for atrial systole and diastole are As and Ad seconds, respectively, while the same for ventricular systole and diastole are Vs an Vd. Which one of the following equations is correct ?
1.As + Ad = Vs + Vd
2.As + Ad < Vs + Vd
3.As + Ad- Vs + Vd = 0
4.As + Ad > Vs + Vd
20. The following are statements about molecular markers in the context of plant breeding.
A. Molecular markers can be used for elimination of undesirable traits.
B. Molecular markers cannot be used for estimation of the genetic contribution of each individual parent in a segregating population.
C. Molecular markers are used for mapping of QTLs, which is also possible by conventional techniques.
D. Molecular markers can be used for selection of individuals from a population that are homozygous for the recurrent parent genotype at loci flanking the target locus.
Which of the above statements are TRUE ?
1) A and B 2) A and C
3) A and D 4) B and C
21. In 'TaqMan' assay for detection of base substitutions (DNA variant), probes (oligonucleotides) with fluorescent dyes at the 5-end and a quencher at 3'-end are used. While the probe is intact, the proximity of the quencher reduces the fluorescence emitted by reporter dye. If the target sequences (wild type or the variant) are present, the probe anneals to the target sequence, down stream to one of the primers used for amplifying the DNA sequence flanking the position of the variants. For an assay two flanking PCR primers, two probes corresponding to the wild type and variant allele and labelled with two different reporter dyes and quencher were used. During extension the probe may be cleaved by the Taq-polymerase separating the reporter dye and the quencher. Three individuals were genotyped using this assay. Sample for individual I shows maximum fluorescence for the dye attached to the wild type probe, sample for individual II Shows maximum fluorescence for the dye attached to variant probe and sample for individual III exhibits equal fluorescence for both the dyes. Which of the following statement is correct ?
1)Individual I is homozygous for the variant allele.
2)Individual II is homozygous for variant allele.
3)Individual II is homozygous for wild type allele.
4)Individual III is homozygous for wild type allele.
22. A nerve impulse or action potential is generated from transient changes in the permeability of the axon membrane to Na+ and K+ ions. The depolarization of the membrane beyond the threshold level leads to Na+ flowing into the cell and a change in membrane potential to a positive value. The K+ channel then opens allowing K+ to flow outwards ultimately restoring membrane potential to the resting value. The Na+ and K+ channels operate in opposite directions because
1)there is an electrochemical gradient growth generated by proton transport
2)there is a difference in Na+ and K+ concentrations on either side of the membrane
3)Na+ is a voltage-gated channel, whereas K+ is ligand-gated
4)Na+ is dependent on ATP whereas K+ is not
23. When the prospective neurons from an early gastrula of a frog were transplanted into the prospective epidermis region, the donor cells differentiated into epidermis. However, when a similar experiment was done with the late gastrula of frog, the prospective neurons developed into neurons only. These observations could possibly be explained by the following phenomena.
1)The early gastrula show conditional development whereas the late gastrula shows autonomous development.
2)The early gastrula show autonomous development whereas the late gastrula shows conditional development.
3)The prospective neurons from the early gastrula are only specified whereas those from the late gastrula are determined.
4)The prospective neurons from the early gastrula are determined whereas those from the late gastrula are specified.
Which of the conclusions drawn above are correct ?
1) A and B 2) A and C
3) A and D 4) B and C
24. The pH of blood of a healthy person is maintained at 7.40 ± 0.05. Assuming that the pH is maintained entirely by the bicarbonate buffer ( of carbonic acid are 6.1 and 10.3, respectively), the molar ratio of [bicarbonate]/[carbonic acid] in the blood is
1) 0.05 2) 1 3) 10 4) 20
25. Insulin and other growth factors stimulate a pathway involving a protein kinase mTOR, which in its turn augments protein synthesis. mTOR essentially modifies protein(s) which in their unmodified form act as inhibitors of protein synthesis. The following proteins are possible candidates.
A) eEF-1 B) eIF-4E-BP1
C) eIF-4E D) PHAS-1
Which of the following sets is correct ?
1) A and B 2) B and D
3) A and C 4) B and C
26. Chlorophyll pigment composition and carbohydrate food reserve of some algal groups are given below :
Pigments : (i) Chlorophyll a and b; (ii) Chlorophyll a and c.
Carbohydrate food reserve : (a) Paramylon; (b) Starch; (c) Laminarin; (d) Leucosin.
Identify the correct combination of the characters for the given groups.
1)Euglenophyta – (i and a); Bacillariophyta – (ii and d); Phaeophyta – (ii and c); Chlorophyta –(i and b)
2)Euglenophyta – (ii and a); Bacillariophyta – (ii and d); Phaeophyta – (i and c); Chlorophyta –(i and b)
3)Euglenophyta – (i and a); Bacillariophyta – (ii and b); Phaeophyta – (i and c); Chlorophyta –(ii and d)
4)Euglenophyta – (i and d); Bacillariophyta – (ii and a); Phaeophyta – (ii and c); Chlorophyta –(i and b)
27. The hydrolysis of pyrophosphate to orthophosphate is important for several biosynthetic reactions. In E. coli, the molecular mass of the enzyme pyrophosphatase is 120kD, and it consists of six identical subunits. The enzyme activity is defined as the amount of enzyme that hydrolyzes 10 μmol of pyrophosphate in 15 minutes at 37oC under standard assay condition. The purified enzyme has a Vmax of 2800 units per milligram of the enzyme. How many moles of the substrate are hydrolysed per second per milligram of the enzyme when the substrate concentration is much greater than Km ?
1)0.05 μmol 2)62 μmol
3)31.1 μmol 4)1 μmol
28. For continuation of protein synthesis in bacteria, ribosomes needs to be released from the mRNA as well as to dissociate into subunits. These processes do not occur spontaneously. They need the following possible conditions :
A. RRF and EF-G aid in this process.
B. An intrinsic activity of ribosomes and an uncharged tRNA are required.
C. IF-1 promotes dissociation of ribosomes.
D. IF-3 and IF-1 promote dissociation or ribosomes.
Which of the following sets is correct ?
1) A and D 2) A and B
c) A and C 4) B and D
29. A bacterial response regulator turns on gene A in its phosphorylated form. The amount of "A" shows a sharp and steep rise at a threshold concentrations of the signal sensed by the cognate senor. This is most likely due to
1. increased phosphatase activity of the sensor at the threshold concentration.
2. decreased phosphorylation of the response regulatory by the sensor.
3. cooperativity in binding of the response regulator to the targest gene A.
4. negative feed back in gene A expression.
30. You are given a group of four mice. Each mouse is immunized with keyhole limpet hemocyanin or azobenzene arsonate or lipopolysaccharide or dextran. Four weeks later, sera were collected from these mice and antigen-specific IgGI and IgG2a ELISA were performed. Only one of the mice showed positive response. It was
1. keyhole limpet hemocyanin-primed mouse
2. azobenze arsonate-primed mouse
3. lipopolysaccharide-primed mouse
4. dextran-primed mouse
31. A monkey undergoes cerebellectomy. After the post-operative recovery, the monkey was given a task to press a bar. The possible observations are :
1)Its hand would overshoot the target while reaching the bar.
2)It would be unable to move forelimbs.
3)It would show intention tremor while trying to press the bar.
4)It would press the bar with mouth instead of hand.
Which one of the following is correct ?
1)A and C 2) B only
3) D only 4) B and D
32. Following are some statements above low temperature stress in plant.
A. Fatty acid composition of mitochondria isolated from chilling resistant and chilling sensitive plants differs significantly.
B. Ratio of unsaturated fatty acids to saturated fatty acids is lower in chilling resistant species.
C. The cellular water does not freeze even at -40oC, because of the presence of solutes and other antifreeze proteins.
D. Heat shock proteins do not play any role during low temperatures stress.
Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct ?
1) A and B 2) A and C
3) B and C 4) B and D
33. During a field study, three insects with the following characteristics were observed :
A : elongate, membranous wings with netlike venation, long and slender abdomen, large compound eyes.
B: small bodied, sucking mouth parts, narrow wings fringed with setae.
C: Sclerotized forewings, membranous hindwings, chewing mouth parts
They can be identified to their respective orders as
1. A-Orthoptera; B-Hemiptera; C-Coleoptera 2. A- Odonata; B-Coleoptera; C- Hemiptera
3. A- Orthoptera; B- Odonata ; C- Coleoptera 4. A- Odonata ; B-Thysanoptera; C- Coleoptera
34. Following are some of the statements regarding the effect of CO2 concentration on photosynthesis in plants.
A. With elevated CO2 levels, C3 plants are much more responsive than C4 plants under well watered condition.
B. In C3 plants, increasing intracellular CO2 partial pressure can stimulate photosynthesis only over a narrow range.
C. In C4 plants, CO2 compensation point is nearly zero.
Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct ?
1) A and B 2) B and C
3) A and C 4) Only C
35. Several distinct time periods and different routes might explain the entrance of marsupials into Australia.
i) Late Jurassic – early therians arrived in Antarctica – Australia where the marsupials subsequently evolved.
ii) Early to middle Cretaceous – early marsupials arrived in Australia from the northern regions and then radiated in isolation.
iii) Paleocene- marsupials entered Australia from South-East Asia.
iv) Eocene- chance dispersal of marsupials into Australia.
Which of the following is the correct combination ?
1) (i) (ii) (iii) 2) (i) (iii) (iv)
3) (ii) (iii) (iv) 4) (i) (ii) (iv)
36. Intracellular transport and cytoskeletal organization of a cell is regulated by nucleotide exchange of different small molecular weight GTPase of Ras super family. Overexpression of which of the following GTPase modulates the actin-cytoskeleton of HeLa cells ?
1) Ran in GDP bound form
2) Ran in GTP bound form
3) Rho in GTP bound form
4) Rho in GDP bound form
37. The most important property of any microscope is its power of resolution, which is numerically equivalent to D, the minimum distance between two distinguishable objects. D depends on three parameters namely, the angular aperture, α, the refractive index, N, and wavelength, λ, of the incident light. Below are given few possible options to increase the resolution of the microscope.
A) Decrease the value of λ or increase either N or α to improve resolution.
B) Moving the objective lens closer to the specimen will decrease sin α and improve the resolution.
C) Using a medium with high refraction index between the specimen and the objective lens to improve the resolution.
D) Increase the wavelength of the incident light to improve the resolution.
Which of the following combination of above statements is correct ?
1) A and C 2) B and C
3) A and D 4) C and D
38. Tumor cells were isolated from a breast cancer patient. These cells were injected into nude mice and they were divided into four groups. Group 1 received EGF receptor-conjugated with methotrexate; Group 2 received transferrin receptor-conjugated with methotrexate; Group 4 received same amount of the free drug. In which of the following cases tumorigenic index would be minimum ?
1. Free drug
2) EGF receptor-conjugated drug
3) Transferrin receptor-conjugated drug
4) Mannose receptor-conjugated drug
39. Stem cell therapies are being used in regenerative medicine like forming new adult bone, which usually does not regrow to bridge wide gaps. Successful attempts have now been made in this area because the same paracrine and endocrine factors were found to be involved in both endochondral ossification and fracture repair. Few methods to achieve the above are given below :
A. Develop a collagen gel containing plasmids carrying the human parathyroid hormone gene and place in the gap between the ends of the broken leg.
B. Develop a gel matrix disc containing genetically modified stem cells to secrete BMP4 and VEGF-A and implant it at the site of he wound.
C. Make scaffolds of material that resemble normal extracellular matrix tat could be molded to form the shape of a bone needed and seed them with bone marrow stem cell.
D. Develop a collagen gel containing plasmids carrying the human bone marrow cells and place them between the ends of the bones.
Which of the above methods would you employ to develop a new functional bone in patients with severely fractured bones.
1) A and B 2) A, B and C
3) A and C 4) C and D
40. In case of morphallactic regeneration :
1. there is repatterning of the existing tissues with little new growth
2. there is repatterning of the existing tissues after the stem cell division has taken place
3. there is cell division of the differentiated cells which maintain their differentiated state to finally form a complete organism.
4. there is dedifferentiation of the cells at the cut surface which become undifferentiated. These undifferentiated cells then divide to redifferentiate to from the complete structure.
41. In an animal experiment ;
(i) Electrical stimulation of an area in the brain (A) increased a function (F) which was prevented by systemic injection of adrenergic antagonistic, prazosin.
(ii) Injection of carbachol (cholinergic agonist) into A also increased function F which was, however not prevented by systemic injection of adrenergic antagonistic, prazosin.
The results are likely to be due to the stimulation of
1. Nonadrenergic and cholinoceptive neurons
2. Cholinergic and non-adrenoceptive neurons
3. adrenergic terminals in 'A'
4. both neurons and fibres passing through 'A'
42. With respect to the extra embryonic structures formed in the mammals, the possible functional attributes have been designated ;
A.Allantoin stores urinary waste and helps mediate gas exchange. It is derived from splanchnopleure at the caudal end of the primitive streak.
B.Amnion is a water sac and protects the embryo and its surrounding amniotic fluid. This epithelium is derived from somatopleure.
C.Chorion is essential for gas exchange in amniote embryos. It is generated from the splanchnopleure.
D.Yolk sac is the last embryonic membrane to form and is derived from somatopleure.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
1) A and B 2) A and C
3) B and C 4) A and D
43. The quantum yield of photosynthetic carbon fixation in a C3 plant and C4 plant is studied as a function of leaf temperature. Following are some statements based on this study.
A. At lower temperature the quantum yield of C3 plant is lower than C4 plant.
B. In C4 plant quantum yield does not show a temperature dependence.
C. Since the photorespiration is low in C4 plants because of CO2 concentrating mechanism, quantum yield is not affected.
D. At higher temperature the quantum yield of C3 plant is lower than C4 plant.
Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct ?
1) A, B and D 2) B, C and D
3) A, B and C 4) A, C and D
44. The frequencies of two alleles p and q for a gene locus in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are 0.3 and 0.7, respectively. After a few generations of inbreeding, the heterozygote frequency was found to be 0.28. The inbreeding coefficient in this case is
1) 0.42. 2) 0.28. 3) 0.33. 4) 0.67.
45. Following are some statements for synthesis of jasmonic acid in plants
A.12-oxo-phytodienoic acid is produced in chloroplast and transported to peroxisome.
B. Action of lipoxygenase, allene oxide synthase and allene oxide cyclase takes place in peroxisome.
C.12-oxo-phytodicnoic acid is first reduced and then converted to jasmonic acid by β- oxidation.
D. Final production of jasmonic acid takes place in chloroplast.
E. Action of allene oxide synthase and allene oxide cyclase takes place in chloroplast.
Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct ?
1) A, B and C 2) B, D and E
3) C, D and E 4) A, C and E
46. Which of the following behavioural changes are expected in a rat when its nucleus accumbens is experimentally ablated ?
1) Aggressive behaviour increases
2) Exploratory behvaiour decreases
3) Nest-building activity increases
4) Level of parental care drops
47. From among the five animals listed below, match the two attributes – amniotic egg and endothermy, with the correct animal(s) :
A) fish B) frog
C) crocodile D) pigeon
E) zebra
1. Amniotic egg : b, c, d; Endothermy: d, e
2. Amniotic egg : c, d, e; Endothermy: d, e
3. Amniotic egg: a, b, c, d; Endothermy: c, d, e
4. Amniotic egg: b, c, d; Endothermy: c, d, e
49. Which of the following is NOT true for a critically endangered species ?
1)Reduction of population breeding ability due to increased relatedness through the action of incompatibility mechanisms in plants or behavioral difficulties in animals.
2)The individuals of the species which have declined to low numbers are still a genetically open system.
3)Loss of some alleles from the species causing loss of genetic diversity with consequent inability of respond rapidly to selection.
4)Expression of deleterious alleles and increased homozygosity increases mortality of young, and inbreeding depression leads to reduced offspring fitness.
50. In the global nitrogen cycle, the following microbial organisms are involved in three important process- denitrification, nitrification and nitrogen fixation.
A)Rhizobium B) Nitrosomonas
C) Nitrobacter D) Pseudomonas
E) Azotabacter.
Which of the following is the correctly matched pair of process and its causative species ?
1. Denitrification - (b); nitrogen fixation –(c) and (e); nitrification – (d)
2. Denitrification - (d); nitrogen fixation –(a) and (e); nitrification – (c)
3. Denitrification - (e); nitrogen fixation –(a) and (d); nitrification – (d)
4. Denitrification - (b); nitrogen fixation –(a) and (d); nitrification – (c)
51. Suppose you discovered a new species about which you know only two facts : it is small-sized (<10 cm) and short-lived (<20d). Which of the following reproductive strategies is most likely to be true for this species ?
1)Breeds early and more than once in life and produces large number of small-sized offspring
2)Breeds late and only once in life and produces large number of small-sized offspring.
3)Breeds early and only once in life and produces large number of small-sized offspring
4)Breeds early and only once in life and produces a small number of large-sized offspring
52. Autotrophs in the aquatic ecosystem, unlike their counterparts in the terrestrial ecosystem, are mostly microscopic and very low in indigestible (to the herbivores) matter. This explains the fact that compared to the terrestrial ecosystem, in the aquatic ecosystem
1)Productivity/Biomass ratios are higher and energy transfer rates to higher trophic levels are faster
2)Productivity/Biomass ratios are lower and the energy transfer rates to higher trophic levels are slower
3)Productivity/Biomass ratio are lower and the energy transfer rate to higher trophic levels are faster
4)Productivity/Biomass ratios are higher and the energy transfer rate to higher trophic levels are slower
53. In order to prevent tetanus in neonates, one of the following treatments can be adopted.
A)Treatment of the infant with anti-toxin and the toxoid.
B)Immunize the mother with the toxoid.
In case of A, the treatment can be given
a)immediately after birth
b)after the onset of the condition.
In case of B, the immunization has to be done
c)before pregnancy.
d)late in the pregnancy.
The correct combination is
1) A/a 2) A/b 3) B/c 4) B/d
54. Ecological compression differs from character displacement in that it operates on a
1)shorter timescale and does not involve heritable change
2)longer timescale and does not involve heritable change
3)shorter timescale and involves heritable change.
4)longer timescale and involves heritable change. |